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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 19.06.2025 06:28

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

There's no rule.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Can you tell me something about yourself?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Have you ever had sex with your mother-in-law? If so, how was it and did your wife ever find out?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

You'll usually find your answer there.

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Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.